SOME MORE DIFFERENCES BETWEEN THE KJV & THE ESV Part 2
Scott G MacLeod
This is only a short comparison of many that could be shown. Please note that my comments are in blue.
1Cor 14:16 Else when thou shalt bless with the spirit, how shall he that occupieth the room of the unlearned say Amen at thy giving of thanks, seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest? (KJV)
1Cor 14:16 Otherwise, if you give thanks with your spirit, how can anyone in the position of an outsider say “Amen” to your thanksgiving when he does not know what you are saying? (ESV)
Space is limited to comment on this point, however, without going into detail, this chapter, and epistle, teaches that there is a clear distinction between those in the fellowship and those not in the fellowship. That is clearly seem by having a distinct place where those not in fellowship, sit and observe a functioning New Testament Church. The way the KJV handles this truth is to be preferred over the newer translations that try to turn the physical location of the ‘room of the unlearned’ into a mental position.
John 6:69 And we believe and are sure that thou art that Christ, the Son of the living God.(KJV)
John 6:69 and we have believed, and have come to know, that you are the Holy One of God.” (ESV)
Why remove ‘…Christ, the Son…’?
1John 4:3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world. KJV)
1John 4:3 and every spirit that does not confess Jesus is not from God. This is the spirit of the antichrist, which you heard was coming and now is in the world already.(ESV)
Why remove ‘…Christ is come in the flesh…’?
Jud 1:4 For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ. (KJV)
Jud 1:4 For certain people have crept in unnoticed who long ago were designated for this condemnation, ungodly people, who pervert the grace of our God into sensuality and deny our only Master and Lord, Jesus Christ. (ESV)
Why change the word ‘God’ to Master and why remove the word ‘Lord’ from His full title?
Mark 15:27 And with him they crucify two thieves; the one on his right hand, and the other on his left.
Mark 15:28 And the scripture was fulfilled, which saith, And he was numbered with the transgressors. (KJV)
Mark 15:27 And with him they crucified two robbers, one on his right and one on his left.
Mark 15:28 Omitted (ESV)
Why remove this clear fulfillment of Isaiah 53:12?
Matthew 13:51 Jesus saith unto them, Have ye understood all these things? They say unto him, Yea, Lord. (KJV)
Matthew 13:51 “Have you understood all these things?” They said to him, “Yes.” (ESV)
Why remove a clear declaration that Jesus is ‘Lord’?
Matthew 28:6 He is not here: for he is risen, as he said. Come, see the place where the Lord lay. (KJV)
Matthew 28:6 He is not here, for he has risen, as he said. Come, see the place where he lay. (ESV)
Once again, why remove the expression ‘…the Lord…’?
Mark 9:24 And straightway the father of the child cried out, and said with tears, Lord, I believe; help thou mine unbelief. (KJV)
Mark 9:24 Immediately the father of the child cried out and said, “I believe; help my unbelief!”(ESV)
Once again, why does the ESV remove the fact that a man called Jesus ‘Lord’ in Mark9:24?
Eph 4:6 One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all. (KJV)
Eph 4:6 one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all. (ESV)
This is subtle, by removing ‘you’, I now have a verse that tells me that God is ‘in all’. Kind of sounds like something the New Age Movement is pushing!
Luke 2:33 And Joseph and his mother marvelled at those things which were spoken of him.(KJV)
Luke 2:33 And his father and his mother marveled at what was said about him. (ESV)
By changing ‘Joseph’ to ‘father’, some could think the wrong thing. I find it interesting, in the KJV, that only the Gospel of John calls Joseph ‘…His father…’, see John 1:42 & 6:42. You may ask, ‘Why is this important’? Very simply, the whole context of the Gospel of John is the presentation of the eternal Son and the eternal Father, over and over again this wonderful truth is clearly taught by John. Its on the backdrop of this context, that the Spirit of God allows a writer to refer to Joseph as ‘…His father…’! By doing this we clearly understand that Joseph was His earthly stepfather, not His biological father.
Luke 11:2 And he said unto them, When ye pray, say, Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done, as in heaven, so in earth.
Luke 11:3 Give us day by day our daily bread.
Luke 11:4 And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil.(KJV)
Luke 11:2 And he said to them, “When you pray, say: “Father, hallowed be your name. Your kingdom come.
Luke 11:3 Give us each day our daily bread,
Luke 11:4 and forgive us our sins, for we ourselves forgive everyone who is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation.” (ESV)
I can’t, for the life of me, understand why these words are missing in the ESV!
Mark 11:25 And when ye stand praying, forgive, if ye have ought against any: that your Father also which is in heaven may forgive you your trespasses.
Mark 11:26 But if ye do not forgive, neither will your Father which is in heaven forgive your trespasses. (KJV)
Mark 11:25 And whenever you stand praying, forgive, if you have anything against anyone, so that your Father also who is in heaven may forgive you your trespasses.”
Mark 11:26 Omitted (ESV)
Why omit verse 26?
Romans 16:24 The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen. (KJV)
Romans 16:24 Omitted (ESV)
Why this verse is removed is beyond me! For those familiar with Paul’s writings, Paul always ends his letters by mentioning ‘…the grace…’.
Matthew 27:35 And they crucified him, and parted his garments, casting lots: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, They parted my garments among them, and upon my vesture did they cast lots. (KJV)
Matthew 27:35 And when they had crucified him, they divided his garments among them by casting lots. (ESV)
Why remove these words, which is a clear fulfillment of Psalm 22:18?
Mark 1:1 The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God;
Mark 1:2 As it is written in the prophets, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee.
Mark 1:3 The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight. (KJV)
Mark 1:1 The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God.
Mark 1:2 As it is written in Isaiah the prophet, “Behold, I send my messenger before your face, who will prepare your way,
Mark 1:3 the voice of one crying in the wilderness: ‘Prepare the way of the Lord, make his paths straight,'” (ESV)
You will notice that the KJV has ‘prophets’ in the plural and the ESV has changed it to ‘Isaiah the prophet’. Here’s the problem, verse 2 is a quotation from Malachi 3:1 and verse 3 is a quotation from Isaiah 40:3, that’s two different prophets, not one!
To download this Word document, click here SOME MORE DIFFERENCES BETWEEN THE KJV AND THE ESV part2