SOME DIFFERENCES BETWEEN THE KJV AND THE ESV Part 1
Scott G MacLeod
This is only a short comparison of many that could be shown. Please note that my comments are in blue.
John 7:8 Go ye up unto this feast: I go not up yet unto this feast; for My time is not yet full come.
John 7:9 When He had said these words unto them, He abode still in Galilee.
John 7:10 But when His brethren were gone up, then went He also up unto the feast, not openly, but as it were in secret. (KJV)
John 7:8 You go up to the feast. I am not going up to this feast, for My time has not yet fully come.”
John 7:9 After saying this, He remained in Galilee.
John 7:10 But after His brothers had gone up to the feast, then He also went up, not publicly but in private. (ESV)
It is amazing the different that one word can make! By removing the word ‘yet’ in verse 7, the Lord Jesus Christ is turned into a liar! By leaving the word ‘yet’ in the verse, the Lord Jesus Christ was going up to the feast but, in His own time and not theirs! The Textual Scholars tell us that the ESV is based upon better Manuscript evidence…in my opinion…anything that turns my Lord into a liar…they/it are lying.
Titus 1:2 In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began;(KJV)
Titus 1:2 in hope of eternal life, which God, who never lies, promised before the ages began(ESV)
The reading of the KJV is to be preferred; I want a God that cannot lie not a God who never lies. The KJV is making a very strong point that it is impossible for God to lie whereas the ESV is only telling us half the truth. It is true that God never lies, but the reason is due to the fact that He cannot lie! The KJV addresses the root, whereas, the ESV addresses the fruit.
1Cor 11:3 But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God.(KJV)
1Cor 11:3 But I want you to understand that the head of every man is Christ, the head of a wife is her husband, and the head of Christ is God.(ESV)
The KJV is right when it translates the Greek word ‘gune’ as women here and not wife. By the way, every English Bible up to and including the KJV translated this chapter this way. The first part of 1 Corinthians 11 is dealing with the truth of Headship, which Paul goes back to Creation to prove. The woman in Assembly fellowship covers her head, not because she is married, but, because of her role that God has given her from Creation. In the ESV, they use wife and husband, thus, taking the truth of Headship from the marriage bond. According to the ESV, an unmarried woman can’t show headship in the Assembly because she is not married. If you have an ESV Study Bible, the note on verse 5 state the following,
‘ 11:5 In verses 5–13, the Greek word gunē is translated wife in verses that deal with wearing a veil, a sign of being married in first-century culture’.
The notes of the ESV and their translation of the text are teaching false doctrine and should be denied!
1Tim 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory. (KJV)
1Tim 3:16 Great indeed, we confess, is the mystery of godliness: He was manifested in the flesh, vindicated by the Spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among the nations, believed on in the world, taken up in glory. (ESV)
It might not be apparent why this is important but the reading of the KJV is very clear that God took human flesh…Many people who deny that Christ is God prefer the ESV reading because to them they have no problem believing that Christ took human flesh but they deny that God did.
Php 2:5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
Php 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Php 2:7 But made Himself of no reputation, and took upon Him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men(KJV)
Php 2:5 Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus,
Php 2:6 Who, though He was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped,
Php 2:7 but made Himself nothing, taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men.(ESV)
Now, there are a number of things that are wrong with the ESV here. Number 1, notice the KJV tells us that this mind is ‘in Christ Jesus’, that means presently. (Notice that the KJV has italicized ‘was’, thus telling us that there is no Greek word corresponding to the English word ‘was’) In contrast, the ESV puts the focus on us as having this mind with no reference to it being in Christ. Number 2, ver6 in the KJV tells us ‘who being in the form of God’ compared to the ESV ‘he was in the form of God’. The KJV makes it clear that Christ is, right now, in the form of God, something that He never gave up, not that He was in the form of God! Finally ver7 of the ESV tells us that Christ ‘made Himself nothing’, what does that mean? How does the God of all make Himself nothing?
Act 8:36 And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain water: and the eunuch said, See, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized?
Act 8:37 And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.
Act 8:38 And he commanded the chariot to stand still: and they went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch; and he baptized him. (KJV)
Act 8:36 And as they were going along the road they came to some water, and the eunuch said, “See, here is water! What prevents me from being baptized?”
Act 8:38 And he commanded the chariot to stop, and they both went down into the water, Philip and the eunuch, and he baptized him. (ESV)
The ESV completely removes verse 37 which has a man stating that ‘Jesus Christ is the Son of God’. Why would anyone remove that from the Bible?
Mark16:9-20 and John7:53-8:11 are questioned as being part of the Word of God. If you have an ESV Study Bible, that is the edition that has their notes on the bottom of the page, the note for Mark16:9-20 mentions ‘In summary, vv.9-20 should be read with caution’. The note for John7:53-8:11 is a lot stronger saying ‘Therefore it should not be considered as part of Scripture and should not be used as the basis for building any point of doctrine unless confirmed in Scripture’.
You may think that I am just making this up, I am not, I am quoting directly from their notes on the Word of God. I personal find these comments wrong, I do not believe that any part of the Bible needs to be read with caution!
Mark 9:24 And straightway the father of the child cried out, and said with tears, Lord, I believe; help thou mine unbelief. (KJV)
Mark 9:24 Immediately the father of the child cried out and said, “I believe; help my unbelief!”(ESV)
Why does the ESV remove the fact that a man called Jesus ‘Lord’ in Mark9:24?
Joh 1:26 John answered them, saying, I baptize with water: but there standeth one among you, whom ye know not;
Joh 1:27 He it is, who coming after me is preferred before me, whose shoe’s latchet I am not worthy to unloose. KJV)
Joh 1:26 John answered them, “I baptize with water, but among you stands one you do not know,
Joh 1:27 even he who comes after me, the strap of whose sandal I am not worthy to untie.”(ESV)
Why does the ESV here remove a reference to the fact that Christ is eternal?
Joh 3:13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.(KJV)
Joh 3:13 No one has ascended into heaven except he who descended from heaven, the Son of Man.(ESV)
Why remove this reference to His present place in Heaven?
Joh 8:59 Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.(KJV)
Joh 8:59 So they picked up stones to throw at him, but Jesus hid himself and went out of the temple.(ESV)
Why does the ESV remove the reference to this miracle of Christ passing right through them?
Act 2:30 Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne;(KJV)
Act 2:30 Being therefore a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him that he would set one of his descendants on his throne,(ESV)
‘…one of his descendants…’, how vague is that. Let’s remind ourselves that David was speaking as a Prophet moved by the Spirit of God, it was never a mystery to the Spirit of God who would take the throne of David!
Act 3:13 The God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, hath glorified his Son Jesus; whom ye delivered up, and denied him in the presence of Pilate, when he was determined to let him go.(KJV)
Act 3:13 The God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, the God of our fathers, glorified his servant Jesus, whom you delivered over and denied in the presence of Pilate, when he had decided to release him.(ESV)
It is true that the Lord Jesus Christ is a servant to God, but is He not more than that? Why remove this clear statement that Jesus, the lowly man is God’s Son?
Joh 6:69 And we believe and are sure that thou art that Christ, the Son of the living God.(KJV)
Joh 6:69 and we have believed, and have come to know, that you are the Holy One of God.”(ESV)
Why does the ESV remove this clear statement that Christ is the Son of the living God? The way it reads in the ESV, nothing of His Sonship is mentioned.
1Jn 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
1Jn 5:8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one. (KJV)
1Jn 5:7 For there are three that testify:
1Jn 5:8 the Spirit and the water and the blood; and these three agree. (ESV)
You will notice that the ESV removes these 24 from the Text. Here is the amazing thing, the ESV does not even make a marginal note, footnote or study note to tell their reader that these 24 words are in our English Bibles. In my opinion, its one thing to remove or question parts of a verse and notify your reader by a marginal or footnote, but, to completely remove words without a single note…that is plain wrong!
To download this Word document, click here SOME DIFFERENCES BETWEEN THE KJV AND THE ESV.doc